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CAIIB BRBL Unit 33 — Information Technology Act, 2000 (Unit 33): Free MCQs with Explanations

By Swarnakshi Jha (ex-banker) · Updated 29 October 2026 · Paper IV of the December 2026 cycle (Sunday 20 December 2026)

This is the free practice page for CAIIB BRBL Unit 33 — Information Technology Act, 2000 (Unit 33) (Module D — Commercial & Other Laws with Reference to Banking Operations). The CAIIB Mock Centre holds 120 questions on this unit alone, every one with a why-right / why-wrong explanation; below are the facts examiners keep returning to, five practice questions with explanations, and the traps that cost marks.

BRBL · Module D120 MCQs in the Mock Centre5 free belowPaper on 20 December

Key facts examiners test from this unit

  1. Scope, definitions and legal recognition — the Act of 2000 gives electronic records and signatures the force of paper and ink, everywhere except the First Schedule documents, and reaches offences committed abroad against computers in India.
  2. Certifying Authorities and Digital Signature Certificates — the Controller licenses and polices Certifying Authorities, which issue certificates binding a subscriber to his public key; the subscriber guards the private key and reports any compromise at once.
  3. Penalties, offences and appeals — unauthorised acts on a computer cost uncapped compensation, lapses cost fixed penalties, the Director-rank adjudicating officer decides up to ₹5 crore, TDSAT hears appeals in 45 days and an Inspector investigates.
Changed since the textbook

Intermediary Rules amended for synthetic content (20 Feb 2026). The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2026, notified on 10 February 2026 and in force from 20 February 2026, require intermediaries to label synthetically generated information prominently, embed provenance metadata where feasible, obtain user declarations on significant social media platforms, remind users of the consequences of non-compliance every three months, and act on court or Government takedown orders within 3 hours instead of 36. Source: Lexplosion

Jan Vishwas amendments to the IT Act (30 Nov 2023). The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 amended the IT Act from 30 November 2023 (S.O. 4745(E) of 31 October 2023): Section 44 penalties rose to ₹15 lakh for each failure to furnish a document, ₹50,000 a day for late returns and ₹1 lakh a day for not maintaining books; the residuary penalty in Section 45 became ₹1 lakh plus compensation of up to ₹10 lakh (intermediary, company or body corporate) or ₹1 lakh (any other person); the adjudicating officer's jurisdiction extends to contraventions under the whole Act (Section 46); failure to surrender a licence (Section 33), … Source: Gazette of India

5 free practice questions — tap an option

Five practice questions from this unit. Answers lock on the first tap, exactly as in the exam, and an explanation opens underneath. The Mock Centre has all 120 questions on this unit, from easy to tough, with caselets and key-in numericals, why every other option is wrong and the exam tip — and tracks your score and revision dates.

Question 1 of 5
Notification S.O. 4720(E), which amended the First Schedule to the IT Act, is dated:
Why (d): Notification S.O. 4720(E) of 26 September 2022 amended the First Schedule. (a) is wrong: October 2009 is not the date of that notification. (b) is wrong: May 2017 is not its date. (c) is wrong: April 2023 is not its date.
Question 2 of 5
An addressee has designated an e-mail address for receiving electronic records, but the originator sends a record to another address of his. Under Section 13, the record is received when:
Why (d): Section 13(2)(a)(ii): where the record is sent to a computer resource of the addressee that is not the designated one, receipt occurs when the addressee retrieves it. (a) is wrong: Entry into a non-designated resource is not receipt. (b) is wrong: Sending marks dispatch, not receipt. (c) is wrong: Acknowledgement is not the test.
Question 3 of 5
Since the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023, a Certifying Authority that fails to surrender a suspended or revoked licence is liable to:
Why (c): Section 33(2), as substituted by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 from 30 November 2023, provides a penalty up to ₹5 lakh in place of the earlier criminal punishment. (a) is wrong: Two years was never the punishment. (b) is wrong: Six months or a fine was the punishment before 2023. (d) is wrong: The Act provides a penalty, not a warning.
Question 4 of 5
Since 2009, compensation under Section 43 is:
Why (a): The 2008 amendment removed the ceiling of one crore rupees. (b) is wrong: ₹1 crore was the pre-2009 cap. (c) is wrong: ₹5 crore is the adjudicating officer's jurisdiction. (d) is wrong: Compensation is payable.
Question 5 of 5
The High Court may extend the appeal period by a further:
Why (d): Section 62 proviso: a further period not exceeding sixty days for sufficient cause. (a) is wrong: A year is not the extension. (b) is wrong: Ninety days is not the extension. (c) is wrong: Thirty days is not the extension.
0 of 5 answered.

Traps in this unit

Practise all 120 questions on Unit 33. The free CAIIB demo opens Units 1–2 of every paper with full explanations; the BRBL Online Mock Centre unlocks all 5,800+ BRBL questions, the full-length papers with caselets and key-ins, module mocks and Smart Revision for 18 months (₹1,499).
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